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	<title>Comments on: Trigonometric Series and the Beginnings of Set Theory</title>
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	<link>http://xorshammer.com/2008/12/20/trigonometric-series-and-the-beginnings-of-set-theory/</link>
	<description>Some things in mathematical logic that I find interesting</description>
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		<title>By: Christian</title>
		<link>http://xorshammer.com/2008/12/20/trigonometric-series-and-the-beginnings-of-set-theory/#comment-431</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Christian]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 31 Mar 2011 13:20:40 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description><![CDATA[I think that the right formula for the Fourier Series includes $latex \frac{a_{0}}{2}$.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I think that the right formula for the Fourier Series includes <img src='http://s0.wp.com/latex.php?latex=%5Cfrac%7Ba_%7B0%7D%7D%7B2%7D&amp;bg=ffffff&amp;fg=333333&amp;s=0' alt='&#92;frac{a_{0}}{2}' title='&#92;frac{a_{0}}{2}' class='latex' />.</p>
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	<item>
		<title>By: tba</title>
		<link>http://xorshammer.com/2008/12/20/trigonometric-series-and-the-beginnings-of-set-theory/#comment-422</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[tba]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sat, 26 Feb 2011 09:42:39 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description><![CDATA[Hello,

Thank you for a very interesting post. Unfortunately my set theory is very poor so I got lost near the beginning:

Can someone explain how we know that if a series converges to 0 for all {1/n &#124; n c N}, it must converge to 0 at 0? I don&#039;t understand why we know it &quot;converges to 0 on, e.g. (-1,0) U (1,0)&quot;: how do we know that this is true on the infinitely many points of the form x/y (1&lt;x&lt;y,x is coprime to y)?

Thanks!]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Hello,</p>
<p>Thank you for a very interesting post. Unfortunately my set theory is very poor so I got lost near the beginning:</p>
<p>Can someone explain how we know that if a series converges to 0 for all {1/n | n c N}, it must converge to 0 at 0? I don&#8217;t understand why we know it &#8220;converges to 0 on, e.g. (-1,0) U (1,0)&#8221;: how do we know that this is true on the infinitely many points of the form x/y (1&lt;x&lt;y,x is coprime to y)?</p>
<p>Thanks!</p>
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